Re: Is a std::map<> ordered?

From:
Pete Becker <pete@versatilecoding.com>
Newsgroups:
comp.lang.c++
Date:
Fri, 21 Nov 2008 10:28:10 -0500
Message-ID:
<2008112110281043658-pete@versatilecodingcom>
On 2008-11-21 08:46:16 -0500, Juha Nieminen <nospam@thanks.invalid> said:

acehreli@gmail.com wrote:

std::map<int, int> myMap(myPredicate);


  I don't think you can do that because the comparator template
parameter is set by default to std::less, and unless myPredicate casts
implicitly to type std::less, that won't work. You have to do it like:

    std::map<int, int, MyPredicateType> myMap(myPredicate);

  If 'myPredicate' is a function, the syntax becomes awkward:

    std::map<int, int, bool(*)(int, int)> myMap(myPredicate);


Well, yes, and as we've seen in many Ginsu knife commercials, a normal
knife can't slice a tomato. The way to write this code is, of course,
with appropriate typedefs:

typedef bool (*pred)(int,int);
std::map<int, int, pred> myMap(myPredicate);

  This becomes even more awkward if the key and data types of the map
are something more complicated than int.


Not at all. Again, typedefs.

--
  Pete
Roundhouse Consulting, Ltd. (www.versatilecoding.com) Author of "The
Standard C++ Library Extensions: a Tutorial and Reference
(www.petebecker.com/tr1book)

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